ITE Checkpoint Exam Answers v6.0 2018 2019

ITE Checkpoint Exam Answers v6.0 2018 2019

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  1. What three voltages are commonly provided by the power supply to the various components inside the computer? (Choose three.)

    • 3.3 volts
    • 5 volts
    • 9 volts
    • 12 volts
    • 24 volts
    • 48 volts
      Explanation:

      Computer power supplies typically deliver three voltages to various components inside the computer. These are 3.3 volts for CPUs, 5 volts for motherboard components, and 12 volts for disk drive motors.
  2. Hard drives in a grocery warehouse keep failing because of the adverse warehouse environment. What would be a possible solution for this high failure rate?

    • Install an SSD drive in each computer.
    • Install a more powerful power supply in each computer.
    • Install an antistatic mat under each computer.
    • Install each computer in a specialized high airflow case.
      Explanation:

      SSD drives are an outstanding choice in extreme temperatures, in unusual environments, and in an environment where there are vibrations.
  3. A server administrator needs to set up a new server with disk fault tolerance technology. The administrator decides to deploy RAID 0+1 technology. What is the minimum number of disks needed to deploy the disk array setting?

    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6
      Explanation:

      RAID 0+1 combines data striping and data mirroring. The minimum number of disks required for data striping is 2 and the minimum number of disks (or disk sets) for data mirroring is 2 as well.
  4. Which type of interface should a customer choose if connecting a single cable from a Microsoft Windows computer to output both audio and video to a high definition television?

    • DVI
    • HDMI
    • PS/2
    • DB-15
      Explanation:

      The high definition multimedia interface or HDMI connector is used for outputting both audio and video on a single cable. A PS/2 port connects a keyboard or a mouse to a computer. Digital visual interfaces and DB-15 connectors are only used for video output.
  5. Refer to the exhibit. To what input device would the cables attach?

    ITE Checkpoint Exam 001

    ITE Checkpoint Exam 001

    • keyboard/mouse combo device
    • KVM switch 
    • video distribution center
    • sound system
      Explanation:

      A KVM switch is commonly used to connect one mouse, keyboard, and monitor to multiple computers.
  6. A desktop user has requested the ability to easily transfer photos from a camera SD card to a computer. Which device can be installed on the desktop computer to fulfill this request?

    • capture card
    • storage controller
    • media reader
    • graphics card
      Explanation:

      A media reader has the ability to read and write to memory cards commonly contained in digital cameras, smart phones, and MP3 players. The memory card can be placed into the media reader and the data can be transferred. A storage controller is a chip that allows for the expansion of internal and external drives. A graphics card increases the overall performance of a computer for gaming and video editing. A capture card is used to import a video stream into a computer and record it to a hard disk.
  7. Which is the correct procedure to put out a fire with a fire extinguisher after the pin is pulled?

    • Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
    • Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
    • Aim directly at the center of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
    • Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the base to the top of the flame.
    • Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the top to the base of the flame.
      Explanation:

      Anyone using a fire extinguisher should remember the basic rules of operation:

      P – Pull the pin.
      A – Aim at the base of the fire, not at the flames.
      S – Squeeze the lever.
      S – Sweep the nozzle from side to side.

  8. Which measure can help control RFI effects on wireless networks?

    • Ensure the humidity and temperature levels are set as low as possible.
    • Ensure the number of wireless NICs exceeds the number of wireless phones.
    • Ensure the wireless network is on a different frequency than the offending source.
    • Ensure each wireless NIC is configured to operate at different frequencies from all other wireless NICs.
      Explanation:

      A wireless network (IEEE 802.11) can be affected by radio frequency interference because it shares the same radio frequency range with other devices, such as cordless phones.
  9. What can be tested with a digital multimeter?

    • wireless signal strength and access point positioning
    • basic functionality of computer ports
    • copper cable location
    • quality of electricity in computer components
      Explanation:

      A digital multimeter can test the integrity of circuits and the quality of electricity in computer components.
  10. Which disk management tool scans the critical files of an operating system and replaces the corrupt files?

    • Scandisk
    • Chkdsk
    • Disk Cleanup
    • Optimize Drives
    • System File Checker
      Explanation:

      System File Checker will scan critical files of an operating system and replace corrupt files. Scandisk and Chkdsk check the integrity of files and folders on a hard drive. Optimize Drives optimizes space on a hard drive. Disk Cleanup will clear space on a hard drive by looking for files that can be deleted.
  11. Which action can reduce the risk of ESD damage when computer equipment is being worked on?

    • working on a grounded antistatic mat
    • lowering the humidity level in the work area
    • moving cordless phones away from the work area
    • keeping the computer plugged into a surge protector
      Explanation:

      To help prevent ESD damage, use grounded mats on work benches and grounded floor mats in work areas. You can also use an antistatic wrist strap to prevent ESD strikes except when working inside power supplies or CRT monitors.
  12. When a used CPU is being installed, what two items should be used to clean the top of the CPU and the base of the heat sink before applying thermal compound? (Choose two.)

    • tap water
    • denatured water
    • isopropyl alcohol
    • cotton swab
    • lint-free cloth
      Explanation:

      Isopropyl alcohol and a lint-free cloth can be used to remove the old thermal compound from a CPU and heat sink. Because it could potentially leave residual fibers, a cotton swab should definitely not be used. Water of any type would not be able to help dissolve the thermal compound.
  13. A technician is troubleshooting a problem where many websites return a “certificate not valid” error. The technician notices that the date and time are not current and resets these to the correct settings. The previously inaccessible websites are now accessible. However, when the computer is restarted the same problem reoccurs. What can the technician do to prevent the date and time from resetting?

    • Reinstall the OS.
    • Upgrade the BIOS.
    • Change the power settings in the BIOS.
    • Replace the CMOS battery.
      Explanation:

      Time and date settings are retained in CMOS when the power is turned off. The CMOS battery allows these settings to be retained. Time and date are set in BIOS, but upgrading it will not aid in keeping the settings. Reinstalling the OS would have no effect on the ability of the computer to retrieve these settings.
  14. Which two hardware features would a technician monitor within the BIOS if a computer was suspected of overheating? (Choose two.)

    • CPU clock speed
    • CPU fan speed
    • motherboard voltage
    • hard drive speed
    • Trusted Platform Module
      Explanation:

      A technician would use the BIOS to monitor CPU clock speed and CPU fan speed if overheating was suspected. Monitoring the motherboard voltage, hard drive speed, and Trusted Platform Module settings would not provide information relevant to computer overheating.
  15. What component can be replaced and upgraded on a PC to increase the data processing speed?

    • CPU
    • RAM
    • hard drive
    • BIOS
      Explanation:

      Replacing or upgrading a CPU with a faster clock speed will increase data processing speed. Adding more RAM or replacing a hard disk that is faster (higher RPM) will enhance the performance of the PC by reducing the needs for virtual memory swapping and reducing the time needed to retrieve and store data from/to the hard disk. However, only the CPU is responsible for the task of data processing.
  16. What are two effects of not having a preventive maintenance plan for users and organizations? (Choose two.)

    • increased repair costs
    • increased number of regular updates
    • increased downtime
    • increased management tasks
    • increased documentation needs
      Explanation:

      Having a preventive maintenance plan in place can lead to improved reliability, performance, and efficiency in the IT infrastructure. If a preventive maintenance plan is not in place, it can often lead to issues that will cause infrastructure downtime and significant repair costs. A preventive maintenance plan helps ensure that these costly issues are handled before they become a problem.
  17. Which three actions should be part of a regular computer preventive maintenance plan? (Choose three.)

    • removing dust from fan intakes, the power supply, and peripherals
    • installing appropriate security updates
    • removing unused or unwanted programs
    • changing browser settings
    • deleting old email
    • installing more RAM in the machine
      Explanation:

      Removing dust from fan intakes, the power supply, and peripherals helps maintain hardware. Installing appropriate security updates helps keep operating systems and software programs secure. Removing unwanted programs recovers hard drive space and improves access time. Changing browser settings and deleting old email are user preferences. Installing more RAM would be done to address a problem, not as preventive maintenance.
  18. If a technician is unable to create a backup of data on a customer computer, what three pieces of information should the technician include on the liability release form signed by the customer before beginning work? (Choose three.)

    • a description of the problem
    • the steps required to resolve the problem
    • permission to work on the computer without a current backup available
    • a release from liability if data is lost or corrupted
    • the components used in the repair
    • a description of the work to be performed
      Explanation:

      If there is not a current backup of the data and the technician is not able to create one, then a liability release form signed by the customer should contain the following information:

      • Permission to work on the computer without a current backup available
      • Release from liability if data is lost or corrupted
      • Description of the work to be performed
  19. What is the first step in the troubleshooting process?

    • Implement a quick procedure to solve the problem.
    • Ask the user direct questions about the issue.
    • Create a plan of action to propose to the user.
    • Establish a theory for the cause of the problem.
      Explanation:

      The first step in the troubleshooting process is to gather data and information.The gathering process should begin with the technician asking the user direct questions.
  20. After performing a preventive maintenance on a PC, the technician powers on the PC only to find that nothing happens. What is the most likely problem?

    • The computer is not plugged into the AC outlet.
    • The power supply voltage switch is set to the incorrect voltage.
    • The technician forgot to reset the BIOS settings.
    • The CPU has not been reinserted properly.
      Explanation:

      When maintenance is being performed, the computer should be unplugged for cleaning. The CPU should not be removed from the motherboard during maintenance. The BIOS configuration does not have to be redone and would not cause these symptoms. It is unlikely that the power supply voltage switch would have been accidentally moved.
  21. Which statement describes a characteristic of a network operating system?

    • A network operating system shares files and folders on a small network with limited security.
    • It runs multiuser applications.
    • It typically is used in SOHO environments.
    • It supports a limited number of users.
      Explanation:

      Network operating systems support multiple users, run multiuser applications, and are typically used in large corporate network environments.
  22. What technology was created to replace the BIOS program on modern personal computer motherboards?

    • UEFI
    • RAM
    • CMOS
    • MBR
      Explanation:

      As of 2015, most personal computer motherboards are shipped with UEFI as the replacement for the BIOS program.
  23. On which two occasions is it most likely that a technician will have to perform a clean operating system installation if a backup has not been performed? (Choose two.)

    • A user requires access to a new printer.
    • The existing operating system is corrupted.
    • The existing security software requires upgrading.
    • The computer is being moved to a different network.
    • A new replacement hard drive is installed in a computer.
  24. Which key or key sequence pressed during the boot process will allow a user to start a Windows PC using the last known good configuration?

    • F1
    • F8
    • F12
    • Alt-Z
    • Windows key
  25. In which folder are application files for 32-bit programs typically located on a computer that is running a 64-bit edition of Windows 7?

    • C:\Users
    • C:\Program Files
    • C:\Application Data
    • C:\Program Files (x86)
      Explanation:

      The C:\users folder contains all the user profiles. The C:\Application Data folder contains application data related to all users. The 32 bit program files are located in the C:\Program Files(x86) folder while 64 bit program files are located in the C:\Program Files folder.
  26. A technician notices that an application is not responding to commands and that the computer seems to respond slowly when applications are opened. What is the best administrative tool to force the release of system resources from the unresponsive application?

    • Task Manager
    • Add or Remove Programs
    • Event Viewer
    • System Restore
      Explanation:

      Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is not responding.
  27. What does virtual memory provide to an operating system?

    • an increase in data storage
    • an increase in the speed of accessing RAM
    • a temporary storage of data until enough RAM is available to process it
    • the creation of virtual partitions on the hard drive
      Explanation:

      The OS uses virtual memory when a computer does not have enough RAM available to run a program. Virtual memory moves data from RAM and places it in a paging file on the hard drive. A paging file is a place where data is stored until enough RAM is available to process the data. This process is much slower than accessing the RAM directly.
  28. A PC technician is having trouble with a Windows-based system and wants to perform a system restore from the command prompt. What command would start this process?

    • tasklist
    • robocopy
    • sfc
    • gpupdate
    • rstrui
      Explanation:

      The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

      • tasklist – displays currently running applications
      • robocopy – copies a file
      • sfc – checks and replaces missing or damaged system files
      • gpupdate – refreshes group policy settings
      • rstrui – starts the System Restore utility
  29. A technician is attempting to create virtual machines on a PC but wants to ensure that the physical system resources used by the virtual machines are directly managed by them and not by the host operating system. How can the technician accomplish this?

    • Set up the virtual machines using a native hypervisor.
    • Set up the virtual machines using a hosted hypervisor.
    • Set up the virtual machines as Windows Virtual PCs
    • Limit the amount of paged RAM.
    • Disable hyperthreading in the BIOS.
      Explanation:

      A hosted hypervisor allows the underlying operating system to control the allocation of physical resources. Windows Virtual PC is an example of a Hosted hypervisor. Disabling hyperthreading or limiting the amount of paged RAM will not allow the virtual machine to control the physical resources.
  30. A company has a preventive maintenance policy that requires every computer have a new restore point created every six months. For computers using the Windows 7 operating system, how can a technician create the restore point?

    • From the CLI enter the command restore /cn.
    • Choose Start > Control Panel > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore > Create a restore point.
    • Choose Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore > Next.
    • Right-click My Computer and then choose Properties > Restore > Create Restore Point.
  31. A user notices that some of the programs that are installed before upgrading to Windows 7 no longer function properly. What can the user do to fix this problem?

    • Change the file system to FAT16.
    • Update the driver for the graphics card.
    • Reinstall the programs in Compatibility Mode.
    • Lower the UAC setting in the Change User Account Control settings dialog box of the User Accounts control.
      Explanation:

      UAC is used to change user account settings while converting the file system to FAT16 and updating the driver for the graphics card will not resolve the issue. Compatibility mode in Windows 7 allows for the running of a program created for previous versions of the Windows environment.
  32. A network administrator has finished migrating from a peer-to-peer network to a new client-server network configuration. What are two advantages of the new configuration? (Choose two.)

    • The total cost of the new solution is considerably lower.
    • Data is more secure in the event of hardware failures.
    • Individual users are in control of their own computers and network resources.
    • Data resources and access are centrally controlled.
    • Personnel costs are lower because a dedicated network administrator is no longer necessary.
      Explanation:

      Centralization in a client-server network configuration provides better monitoring for security, as well as easier access to resources. The total cost may be higher because a network administrator is required, but reliability and scalability are enhanced.
  33. At which TCP/IP model layer would a MAC address be found?

    • application
    • transport
    • internet
    • network access
  34. A technician needs to add a new wireless device to a small WLAN. The WLAN is a mixture of old and newer 802.11b and 802.11g devices. What choice for the new device would provide the most interoperability for present and future growth?

    • Add a new 802.11a device.
    • Add a new 802.11b device.
    • Add a new 802.11g device.
    • Add a new 802.11n device.
      Explanation:

      802.11n devices are interoperable with all the other standards, and provide more bandwidth than the other standards. 802.11a is not interoperable with any of the other standards. 802.11b and 802.11g interoperate with each other, but do not provide the bandwidth supplied by 802.11n devices.
  35. A customer who wants to enhance home network security is shopping for devices. The sales representative recommends a device that has a hardware firewall. Which device can provide this service?

    • bridge
    • switch
    • integrated router
    • wireless access point
      Explanation:

      An integrated router usually includes a hardware firewall. A home wireless router is a type of integrated router.
  36. Copper network cables consist of pairs of wires that are twisted together. Which type of signal interference is reduced or prevented by this?

    • RFI
    • EMI
    • crosstalk
    • white noise
      Explanation:

      Crosstalk occurs when a signal from one wire interferes with a signal from another wire in the same cable. The twisting of wire pairs helps to protect against crosstalk.
  37. A computer is assigned an IP address of 169.254.33.16. What can be said about the computer, based on the assigned address?

    • It cannot communicate outside its own network.
    • It can communicate on the local network as well as on the Internet.
    • It can communicate with networks inside a particular company with subnets.
    • It has a public IP address that has been translated to a private IP address.
      Explanation:

      If a computer is configured with DHCP but it cannot communicate with the DHCP server in order to obtain an IP address, the Windows OS automatically assigns a link-local IP, in the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. The computer can only communicate with other computers connected to the same 169.254.0.0/16 network and cannot communicate with computers in another network.
  38. A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network. What action does the user need to take?

    • Disable SSID broadcast.
    • Enable WPA encryption.
    • Configure DMZ settings.
    • Configure a DNS server.
      Explanation:

      Disabling SSID broadcast prevents the access point from announcing the name of the network. Enabling WPA encryption, configuring DMZ settings, and configuring a DNS server will accomplish different tasks, but the name of the network will still be announced.
  39. A home user was successfully browsing the Internet earlier in the day but is now unable to connect. A ping command from a wireless laptop to a wired PC in the LAN is successful, but the nslookup command fails to resolve a website address. The user decides to analyze the LEDs on the Linksys router to verify connectivity. Which LED should be of main concern in this situation?

    • WLAN LED
    • power LED
    • Internet LED
    • 1-4 Ethernet LEDs
  40. Why would an administrator use Windows Remote Desktop and Windows Remote Assistant?

    • to provide secure remote access to resources on another network
    • to connect to an enterprise network across an unsecured connection and act as a local client of that network
    • to enable sharing of files and presentations with a group of users over the Internet
    • to connect to a remote computer over the network to control its applications and data
      Explanation:

      Windows Remote Desktop and Remote Assistant allow an administrator to connect a local computer with a remote computer across the network and to interact with it as though it were the local computer. The administrator sees and can interact with the desktop of the remote computer. With Remote Desktop, the administrator logs onto the remote computer using an existing user account and starts a new user session. No user is required at the remoter computer to allow this access. With Remote Assistant, the purpose is for a technician to interact with a remote computer with the assistance of a remote user. The remote user must allow the remote access to the current user session and is able to observe what the technician is doing.
  41. A corporation has expanded to include multiple remote offices around the globe. Which technology should be used to allow the remote offices to communicate and share network resources privately?

    • VPN
    • Remote Desktop
    • administrative share
    • Remote Assistance
      Explanation:

      A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is used to connect remote sites together securely over a public network.
  42. What physical layer medium is used by DSL to provide high-speed data communications?

    • telephone lines
    • television cable
    • Satellite dish
    • 4G wireless radio
      Explanation:

      DSL uses existing telephone lines to carry voice and data traffic at the same time. DSL uses a filter to separate the traffic.
  43. The current IP configuration of a small company is done manually and is time-consuming. Because of increased network growth, a technician needs a simpler way for IP configuration of workstations. Which service would simplify the workstation IP configuration task?

    • APIPA
    • DHCP
    • DIPS
    • ICMP
      Explanation:

      In networks with more than a few hosts, DHCP simplifies the addressing process. A DHCP server automatically assigns host IP addresses.
  44. What is the function of the DNS server?

    • It assigns IP addresses to clients.
    • It accepts HTTP requests from clients.
    • It maps a hostname to a corresponding IP address.
    • It manages the domain that clients are assigned to.
  45. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?

    • The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
    • The computer has an invalid IP address.
    • The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
    • The computer has an invalid default gateway address.
      Explanation:

      The default gateway is the address of the device a host uses to access the Internet or another network. If the default gateway is missing or incorrect, that host will not be able to communicate outside the local network. Because the host can access other hosts on the local network, the network cable and the other parts of the IP configuration are working.

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